maxallen
Mar 23 2004, 08:36 PM
I was reading this thread with interest this afternoon, and tonight I decided to guess "bunt". But JIP beat me to it. :mad: wink
MLB UMPIRE
Mar 23 2004, 09:29 PM
Don't worry, max, because JIP isn't right anyway. He is somewhat close (part of his answer anyway), and BPT is a bit closer, but so far, no one's got it right.
I'll pop back Wednesday sometime with the correct answer if no one's got it right by then. I should've made THIS one the "win a date with an ump" question.
Just kidding!!!
maxallen
Mar 24 2004, 12:28 PM
So the answer must be "fly ball."
But fly balls would be a sub-group of fair balls, right? And if a fly ball is one of the official types of batted ball, then why wouldn't line drives and ground balls also be type of batted ball? So it shouldn't be fly ball in my mind, but maybe it is.
stinger85
Mar 24 2004, 01:53 PM
Wow, maxallen, those were my thoughts as well. My thinking is that any fly ball, bunt, grounder, or line drive would be fair or foul if put into play. That was why I thought the illegally batted ball would work, because I don't think it can be categorized in fair, foul, foul tip, or whatever the fourth type happens to be.
MLB UMPIRE
Mar 24 2004, 05:09 PM
Max, you are the closest.
The answer is a foul
batted ball.
A foul batted ball is a ball hit into the air in foul territory. It (a) must remain or at least end up in foul territory and (

must be caught. If it is not caught, it's a simple foul ball, which is dead. A foul batted ball, however, remains live.
So, does everyone see the significance of this fourth type of batted ball? Here's one glaring example of why it's important...
With a runner on first base and 1 out, the batter hits a grounder to the second baseman, who's about to field the ball. However, the ball nails R1 in the foot. This is simple runner interference: the ball is dead, R1 is declared out, and the batter-runner is awarded first. If there were any other runners on base, they'd be returned to the time of pitch base unless forced to advance by virtue of the batter-runner awarded first.
So, when a runner interferes, the batter is awarded first base. The rationale behind this is that the batter had completed his time at bat. Because he hit the ball
fair, he cannot be returned to the plate to bat again. It wasn't his fault a teammate interfered, even if unintentionally.
Well, what about this situation: R3 on third and R1 on first with no outs when the batter hits a pop up toward third base. The ball and the third baseman drift toward the coach's box, but R3, in an attempt to get back to third, bumps into F5, causing him to drop the ball. RULING: Interference on R3. The ball is dead, he is declared out, R1 is returned to first, and
the batter is returned to the plate, with a strike being added to the count due to the ball being hit foul (unless there were already two strikes). Because he hit the ball foul, he has not completed his at bat.
Technically, because the ball was not caught, it is a foul ball and not a foul batted ball. I'm using this as an example, however, of the concept of foul batted ball. If the ball HAD been caught by F5, it would, of course, had remained live, since the runners could have tagged up if they so desired. They couldn't have done this on a normal foul ball, because the ball would have been dead; and it wasn't a fair ball obviously, and it certainly wasn't a foul tip. Therefore, it has to be SOMEthing distinct.
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 6 2004, 03:15 PM
All right, let's get rollin':
R1 on first base with nobody out when the batter bunts the ball down the third base line. The ball is hugging the line still barely foul about halfway down the line when the pitcher, who came over to make the play on it, throws his mitt at the ball to make sure it stays foul. His mitt does hit the ball, which was still hugging the line foul when contact occurred.
What's the ruling?
stinger85
Apr 6 2004, 05:19 PM
I say foul ball and R1 returns to first and the batter returns to bat unless it would have been his third strike in which case the batter is out. The ball is foul because the ball was in foul territory when it was touched.
[ April 06, 2004, 05:20 PM: Message edited by: stinger85 ]
beachjock73
Apr 6 2004, 05:34 PM
I guess fair ball. Runners proceed normally.
FeverDog
Apr 6 2004, 07:36 PM
Isn't this a case of illegal use of equipment or something? I think a batter gets the base if a fielder uses his cap to catch a fly ball, so I'm guessing the same ruling applies here. Unless throwing your glove at a ball isn't illegal, then I have no idea how to score this.
Billinjc
Apr 7 2004, 07:51 PM
My guess would be a fair ball since the ball may still carry its momentum over into fair territory. Runner on 1st goes to 2nd, batter goes to 1st. This reminds me of when the Seattle pitcher "blew" the ball foul that had a chance to go fair. I believe the ruling there was a fair ball because of interference.
[ April 07, 2004, 07:57 PM: Message edited by: Billinjc ]
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 7 2004, 08:45 PM
What we have here is called "detached gear," which is illegal.
Different penalties apply depending on whether such contact is on a fair batted ball, a thrown ball, or pitched ball, as well as a batted ball that would have been a home run.
No penalties apply when the ball is foul, except in cases where the ball had the potential to become fair, such as in this case. Therefore, R1 is awarded home and the batter-runner third base.
When a fielder intentionally throws his mitt, cap, or any other part of his uniform detached from its proper place at a ball and contact with the ball occurs; or if a fielder uses such detached gear to "catch" a ball, the following applies:
- On a batted ball that would have gone over the fence for a home run, the award is FOUR bases for all runners and batter-runner from time of contact.
- On a fair batted ball or a ball that could have gone fair, the award is THREE bases for all runners and batter-runner from time of contact.
- On a thrown ball, the award is TWO bases for all runners and batter-runner from time of contact.
- On a pitched ball, the award is ONE base for all runners and batter-runner from time of contact.
Note: The ball remains LIVE in each of these situations. This is one of only two times the ball remains live on an award of bases. Just out of curiosity, can anyone name the other time? This one's easy, since I've mentioned it before and it's quite common.
NCAAcoach
Apr 8 2004, 09:15 PM
Hey UMP!
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You can email me back if interested or send me a private message on AOL IM: Socaliguy2004. About me..... Younger NCAA coach... very closeted.. masculine.. love sports! Low key... lovin'.... I dunno... great catch -- big problem, deep in the closet
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 8 2004, 10:51 PM
I appreciate your interest in this forum, NCAAcoach, but please keep posts on topic. I do not use this board as a dating service.
Cordially...
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 8 2004, 11:04 PM
Another one for the masses, gentlemen:
R1 on first and R3 on third with one out. The pitch is delivered and the batter squares around to bunt. R1 thinks it's a squeeze, so he's off with the pitch. R3 smartly stayed put. The ball is instead bunted into the air as a pop fly near the first base line where the pitcher is about to catch it then throw it to first to nail R1, who is nowhere near returning to first. However, the batter sticks his arm out to cause the pitcher to drop the pop fly, which was touched in foul territory.
What's the ruling? Good luck!
[ April 08, 2004, 11:05 PM: Message edited by: The Umpire ]
js1metsfan
Apr 9 2004, 04:27 AM
I'd call batter inference with the pitcher so he is out, and then if my judgement I felt that the pitcher could have turned a double play, I could call R1 out as well.
Josh
Joe in Philly
Apr 9 2004, 07:05 AM
QUOTE
The Umpire:
Note: The ball remains LIVE in each of these situations. This is one of only two times the ball remains live on an award of bases. Just out of curiosity, can anyone name the other time? This one's easy, since I've mentioned it before and it's quite common.
On a wild pitch/passed ball on ball four?
Billinjc
Apr 9 2004, 11:10 AM
I would think this would be interference on the batter. Batter should be out, R1 should also be out since he would have more than likely been out without the interefrence occurring...end of inning.
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 9 2004, 07:05 PM
QUOTE
Joe in Philly:
QUOTE
The Umpire:
Note: The ball remains LIVE in each of these situations. This is one of only two times the ball remains live on an award of bases. Just out of curiosity, can anyone name the other time? This one's easy, since I've mentioned it before and it's quite common.
On a wild pitch/passed ball on ball four?
You're about three quarters right, Joe.
The answer is actually a base on balls/walk. A walk is the only other time the ball is live on an award of bases. Good job.
Bill and josh, you're only partly correct. Your final ruling is not. Try again. The answer might surprise you.
SoFlaSpartan
Apr 9 2004, 09:07 PM
QUOTE
The Umpire:
Another one for the masses, gentlemen:
R1 on first and R3 on third with one out. The pitch is delivered and the batter squares around to bunt. R1 thinks it's a squeeze, so he's off with the pitch. R3 smartly stayed put. The ball is instead bunted into the air as a pop fly near the first base line where the pitcher is about to catch it then throw it to first to nail R1, who is nowhere near returning to first. However, the batter sticks his arm out to cause the pitcher to drop the pop fly, which was touched in foul territory.
What's the ruling? Good luck!
My guess is that the batter's out, but that it's a dead ball and everybody goes back from whence they started....
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 10 2004, 08:07 PM
It is interference by the batter-runner on an obvious and imminent double play. The ball is dead, he is declared out, and the runner closest to home is declared out, regardless of where the double play would have occurred. In this situation, the B-R is out, the ball is dead, R3 is declared out, and R1 returned to first base.
When a runner interferes on an obvious and imminent double play the ruling is a bit different than if the batter is the one who interfered. Tough penalty here.
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 27 2004, 11:19 PM
Runners on first and third with two outs when the batter raps a double, scoring both runners. The batter-runner tries to stretch it into a triple and is nailed out at third. The first baseman is screaming that the B-R missed first base, so he calls for the ball and steps on first appealing the B-R there.
What's the ruling on this play?
FeverDog
Apr 28 2004, 12:26 AM
If the first baseman's appeal is successful, I assume only R3 scores on the play.
Oh, wait a sec. That'd be a force-out at first to end the inning, so neither runner scores. Yeah, that sounds right.
But the third out was made at third, so if the inning's over can the final play be contested? Maybe both runners
do score.
Aw, jeez, now I'm confused...
[ April 28, 2004, 12:27 AM: Message edited by: FeverDog ]
js1metsfan
Apr 28 2004, 04:16 AM
I think you can have 4 outs in an inning in a situation like this.
If the appeal at 1st is successful, then the defensive team would take that out, and no runs would score on the play, since the batter-runner never touched first.
Josh
SheaBoy
Apr 28 2004, 02:59 PM
If the first-base ump rules that the batter-runner didn't tag first, then that's the third out and neither run counts.
If the FBU says the batter-runner did tag first, then it becomes a timed play (because the batter makes it safely to first without forcing anyone else out). Assuming the two runners made it home before the batter is put out at third, both runs count.
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 28 2004, 11:05 PM
Fever, force outs cannot occur at first base.
Josh and Sheaboy are correct, with Josh being a bit more correct, so to speak.
The batter-runner missed first base. An appeal of him there was valid and successful. This 4th out supersedes the 3rd out and becomes the final out of the inning, and since no runs can score on a play where the final out is the result of a batter failing to touch or reach first base, R1's and R3's runs are nullified. Now, on to the next related one...
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 28 2004, 11:08 PM
Here's an easy one that's very often missed:
Runners on first and third with one out when the batter raps a long fly ball to right center field. Both runners don't tag and are off with the hit. The ball is caught. R1, approaching second base, realizes he didn't tag up, so he races back to first as R3 scampers across the plate. The ball subsequently gets to first to double up R1.
What's the ruling?
js1metsfan
Apr 29 2004, 05:28 AM
Ump--funny you should ask this, as I had a similar play in my game over the weekend.
If they never appeal at 3rd base, then the run scores, as doubling up a runner at first is a timing play not a force play. However, if they were to appeal at 3rd base even after they get the out at first, then the run would not count.
This play also ended a Mets/Yankees game a few years ago in the bottom of the 9th....1st and 3rd and one out. Fly ball to right and the runner on first was doubled up but after the runner touched home. The umpires in that game correctly let the run score and the Mets won (woo-hoo!)
Josh
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 29 2004, 03:34 PM
It's a lot more fun when the non-umpires try to answer these. Josh is too smart.
Just busting your b---s, of course.
SheaBoy
Apr 30 2004, 06:10 AM
QUOTE
js1metsfan:
However, if they were to appeal at 3rd base even after they get the out at first, then the run would not count.
Ump: What's the "statue of limitations" on a play like this? How quickly does the defensive team have to make the appeal, so that R3's run wouldn't count?
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 30 2004, 10:52 AM
Shea, when the defense makes such an appeal, it must be done before all infielders have left fair territory or before the catcher has left his area. At least ONE infielder must remain in fair territory or the catcher must be in his area for the defense to appeal. Once all infielders have left fair territory and the catcher has left his area, the defense is S.O.L.
I believe this is the same for NCAA as well. Federation (high school), of course, has some different appeal stipulations.
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 30 2004, 10:56 AM
Here's another one for the masses...
R1 on first base when he's off with the pitch. The ball is hit to deep center on a fly. R1 rounds second and is halfway to third when the ball is caught. The center fielder throws to first to double up R1, but the ball sails into the stands behind first base. R1 wasn't paying attention and kept on running, touching third en route to home when his third base coach was screaming at him to go back. R1 stopped halfway to home and retraced his steps back to first.
What's the ruling?
Good luck on this one. There are a couple things to consider here.
SoFlaSpartan
Apr 30 2004, 11:04 AM
QUOTE
The Umpire:
Here's another one for the masses...
R1 on first base when he's off with the pitch. The ball is hit to deep center on a fly. R1 rounds second and is halfway to third when the ball is caught. The center fielder throws to first to double up R1, but the ball sails into the stands behind first base. R1 wasn't paying attention and kept on running, touching third en route to home when his third base coach was screaming at him to go back. R1 stopped halfway to home and retraced his steps back to first.
What's the ruling?
Good luck on this one. There are a couple things to consider here.
Yay, these hypotheticals are cool.
If nobody has said it before, thanks Umpire.
Billinjc
Apr 30 2004, 02:31 PM
You would have to know where R1 was in the base paths at the time of the errant throw into the stands. Since he was halfway to home, he should be allowed home plate due to gaining one base on the throw. Since R1 went back and tagged 1st and 2nd base, my guess would be his run would then be valid. This is assuming he rounds all the bases and then home.
js1metsfan
Apr 30 2004, 02:34 PM
Under Federation rules, the runner is out. If you missed a base while the ball is dead, once you touch the next base, you can no longer go back and touch the base you missed.
I think this is the rule in pro as well, but I"m not 100% sure.
Josh
PS--ump..this time I let someone else answer before I did (-:
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 30 2004, 03:01 PM
Josh, half your answer is correct. You're on the right track with the Federation reference. There still is something else to consider.
Bill, your answer is incorrect. (I never know how to word that without making it sound insulting.

It's not intended that way.)
MLB UMPIRE
Apr 30 2004, 03:04 PM
QUOTE
AtlantaSpartan:
Yay, these hypotheticals are cool.
If nobody has said it before, thanks Umpire.
I'm sure others have said it, but your thanks are appreciated. You're quite welcome.
Billinjc
May 2 2004, 08:16 AM
QUOTE
The Umpire:
Josh, half your answer is correct. You're on the right track with the Federation reference. There still is something else to consider.
Bill, your answer is incorrect. (I never know how to word that without making it sound insulting.

It's not intended that way.)
Oh well, a C+ for effort anyway. Some of these rules are very ambiguous if you're not familiar with strange plays like this. This really helps me to understand the rules a lot better.
MLB UMPIRE
May 4 2004, 01:08 AM
Only a C+? Nah, I'd give you a better grade than that for effort. wink
Besides, what fun would this particular section be if everyone got everything right all the time?
MLB UMPIRE
May 12 2004, 09:55 PM
Nobody on base when the batter raps a hard shot past the diving shortstop for a base hit. As the batter-runner is running, the ball comes in from F7 to the shortstop as the relay man. The B-R takes a wide turn around first when the shortstop throws to first to nail him. The B-R dives back into first but the ball sails into the dugout. What's the ruling?
JeffWa
May 13 2004, 09:03 AM
Runner advances to second. Dead ball as the ball entered the dugout and is out of play.
Billinjc
May 13 2004, 03:27 PM
I would agree, runner gets 2nd due to the ball being thrown into the dugout. What was the answer to the previous question that I butchered? frown
MLB UMPIRE
May 13 2004, 06:09 PM
The answer to the question at hand: The batter-runner is awarded third base. Remember that when a fielder (this includes a pitcher not in contact with the rubber) throws a ball out of play, the award is always two bases from the base the runner occupied at the time of the throw or the pitch.
Whether it is a time of throw or time of pitch award will be decided by the umpires based on several factors.
In the question at hand, the ball was hit to the outfield and relayed back in. The shortstop then got the ball and threw it out of play. This is a time of throw award. The ball thrown out of play occurred off a thrown ball and not off a batted ball. What I mean by this is: When a ball is batted and retrieved then thrown out of play, the thrown ball is considered occurring off a batted ball. There's a sense of immediacy in terms of timing.
But when the left fielder throws the ball back into the infield, another fielder now has it and throws it out of play. This is considered coming off a thrown ball as opposed to a batted ball, and all such overthrows are two bases from the bases occupied at the time of the THROW, so the B-R is awarded third base.
[ May 13, 2004, 06:10 PM: Message edited by: The Umpire ]
MLB UMPIRE
May 15 2004, 10:08 PM
Here's another one...
Runner on third base with two outs when the pitch gets away from the catcher. The batter moves to get out of the way by walking across the plate to the other side, but the catcher's throw to the pitcher covering home smacks the batter as R3 slides in to score. What's the ruling?
Joe in Philly
May 15 2004, 10:47 PM
It would seem to me the runner is safe at home. Unless there's a rule that the batter has to be completely out of the area or not in any batter's box or something.
wade n atlanta
May 16 2004, 06:53 AM
I would say end of the inning as the batter would be out for batter's interferrence. You can't interfere with an attempt to make a defensive play.
MLB UMPIRE
May 16 2004, 10:35 AM
Here's something to ponder: Batter interference with a play at the plate is handled differently from batter interference and a play on the bases.
Nevertheless, JIP does bring up a good point, one I mention in clinics I work, that being the batter can't just disappear completely from the batter's box. Having said that, though, when a play occurs at the plate, things are a bit stricter on the batter.
Billinjc
May 17 2004, 12:57 PM
I think the batter would be out for 2 things. One for the batter's interference with the throw and also for touching home plate during the at bat.
MLB UMPIRE
May 17 2004, 08:51 PM
Bill, a batter can touch the plate while hitting the ball, provided some part of his foot is still within the batter's box (not true for NCAA and NFHS games). Regardless, that is not what happened here anyway, since he never made contact with the ball.
JeffWa
May 18 2004, 09:30 AM
I would say that batter is out because he stepped out of the batters box and hinders the catchers throwing ability. Batters out, dead ball and run does not count.
MLB UMPIRE
May 19 2004, 10:55 AM
This is batter interference with a play at the plate. With two outs, the batter is out and the run does not score. With less than two outs, the runner is declared out and the batter remains at bat.
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